may experience several successive orgasms,
My question then, I guess, is whether it needs to be, er, pop-pop-pop, as this entry makes it sound, to be considered multiple orgasms, rather than renewed arousal after a short recovery period?
Is this question making sense to anyone else?
Also, -t, the book is as much DFW as it is mathematical history (which is part of what made me love it so much). There's plenty of room for another one that's not Foster Wallace-y! Just look at how many books have been published about zero.
I can't get to this page, I'm pretty sure (god DAMN, I need to clear my cache), but it implies that Kinsey posited 15% of women were capable.
I'm apparently Middle to Upper Middle Class (depending on whether I use my meager salary or my household income as the determinant). Top fifth in education, bottom fifth in income.
ita's "this page" link is what we might call work-unsafe. In case anyone was wondering.
No way I'm having sex with the scary plastic-headed king, no matter how many orgasms.
No! It's not him. Can't be. It's probably him. It's like therapy, see?
Is this question making sense to anyone else?
It is to me. I always thought multiple orgasms meant one right after the other, without extra stimulation or whatnot in between each one.
"Scrump" is archaic slang for "the sexual act." Ben Franklin referred to prostitutes as "scrumpets."
Mmm... hot buttered prostitutes.
I always thought multiple orgasms meant one right after the other, without extra stimulation or whatnot in between each one
Maybe they're like porn. If you know what I mean.
"Most Orgasms: 134 in one hour for a woman - 16 for a man." Comment fully unnecessary.
